ISRO Pharmacist Previous Year Question Paper with answer key 2017

Q.1) The Sweetening agent commonly used in the chewable tablet formula is

[A] sucrose

[B] cyclamate sodium

[C] Saccharin sodium

[D] mannitol

Q.2) Sub-coatings given to the tablets

[A] To increase bulk

[B] To avoid deterioration due to microbial attack

[C] To prevent the solubility in acidic media

[D] To avoid stickiness

Q.3) The pH of a pharmaceutical buffer system can be calculated by

[A] pH partition theory

[B] Noyes Whitney law

[C] Henderson Hasselbalch equation

[D] Michaelis Menten equation

Q.4) The pharmacy council of India is constituted by the (Also GPAT 1992)

[A] Central government

[B] State government

[C] Parliament

[D] Legislative assembly

Q.5) Poorly manufactured tablets may have small pinholes on the surface. This phenomenon is known as (Also GPAT 1992)
[A] Picking
[B]Mottling
[C]Leaching
[D]Cracking

Q.6) Among the following preparations, which one will be the most irritating to the eye

[A] Purified water
[B] 0.7% NaCl solution
[C] 0.9% NaCl solution
[D] 1% NaCl solution

Q.7)Bubble point test-is done to determine (GPAT 1992)

[A] The surface tension of the liquid in capillary tubes
[B] The viscosity of the liquid in ampoules
[C] The pH of 1% solution
[D] The volume of a solution stored in a specific container

Q.8) As per GMP permitted limit of solid contents in water for injections is (GPAT 1994)

[A] 100 ppm
[B] 1.0 ppm
[C] 0.7 ppm
[D] 10.0 ppm

Q.9) License for wholesale of drugs specified in schedule C and C; is issued in the form

[A] 20A
[B] 20B
[C] 21B
[D] 22A

Q.10) In capsules, rotofil is used for filling

[A] Powders
[B] Pellets
[C] Liquids
[D] Corrosive liquids

Q.11) Which of the following commonly available large volume dextrose solution for intravenous use is isotonic

[A] 2.5% W/V
[B] 5.0% W/V
[C] 10% W/V
[D] 20% W/V

Q.12) Which is the ideal combination for testing the solubility of an enteric-coated capsule in alkaline medium? (GPAT 1990)

[A] Sodium bicarbonate + Potassium» hydroxide + Pepsin
[B] Sodium bicarbonates+, Sodium tauroglycocholate + Papain
[C] Sodiumbicarbonate + Pancreatin + Sodium tauroglycocholate
[D] Sodium bicarbonate + Bilirubin

Q.13) Which one of the following is a pseudoalkaloid?

[A] Caffeine
[B] Ephedrine
[C] Morphine
[D] Codeine

Q.14) Which vitamin contains a steroidal structure?

[A] Vitamin E
[B] Vitamin A
[C] Vitamin D
[D] None of the above

Q.15) Morphine is present in

[A]Atropa belladonna
[B] Papaver somniferum
[C] Ricinus communis
[D] Solanum nigrum

Q.16) Emetine, an alkaloid of Ipecacuanha acts as

[A] Antimalarial
[B] Anti-diarrhoeal
[C] Antiseptic
[D] None

Q.17) Patient with Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is treated with Dapsone. He will suffer from

[A] Haemolytic anaemia

[B] Pernicious anaemia

[C] Diarrhoea

[D] None of the above

Q.18) Which one of the following drugs is not a long-acting benzodiazepine?

[A] Diazepam
[B] Clonazepam
[C] Flurazepam
[D] Midazolam

Q.19) Which antibiotic is used for the treatment of both tuberculosis as well as leprosy?

[A] Isoniazid (INH)
[B] Rifampicin
[C] Clofazimine
[D] Ethionamide

Q.20) All the following are stimulant purgatives except

[A] Bisacodyl
[B] Castor oil
[C] Senna
[D] Liquid. paraffin

Q.21) Mast cell stabilizer is

[A] Salbutamol
[B] Theophylline
[C] Sodium cromoglycate
[D] Atropine

Q.22) Anticholinergic used as bronchodilator is

[A] Pilocarpine
[B] ipratropium
[C] Prazosin
[D] Salbutamol

Q.23) Mucolytics are

[A] Bromohexine
[B] Carbocysteine
[C] Acetylcysteine
[D] All of the above

Q.24) All except …….. are antibiotics obtained from fungi

[A] Penicillin
[B] Griseofulvin
[C] Cephalosporin
[D] Bacitracin

Q.25) Some bacteria develop drug resistance very rapidly EXCEPT

[A] Staphylococci
[B] Coliforms
[C] Streptococcus pyogenes
[D] Tubercle bacilli

Q.26) Clavulanic acid or Sulbactum is used in combination with Amoxycillin against H.influenzae because of

[A] Clavulanic acid inhibits beta-lactamase produced by, H.influenzae
[B] Clavulanic acid is an acid-resistant antibiotic
[C] Clavulanic acid is very susceptible to H.influenzae
[D] None of the above

Q.27) Second-line antitubercular-drug is

[A] Streptomycin
[B] Capreomycin
[C] Ethambutol
[D] Rifampin

Q.28) All first-line TB, drugs are bactericidal except

[A] INH
[B] Rifampicin
[C] Ethambutol
[D] Pyrazinamide

Q.29) All the following except contain imidazole ring

[A] Clotrimazole
[B] Econazole
[C] Miconazole
[D] Ketoconazole

[E]  None

Q.30) In congestive cardiac failure, digitalis glycosides are used because it increases

[A] Heart rate
[B] Force of myocardial contraction
[C] Venous pressure
[D] Cardiac filling pressure

Q.31) In order to produce characteristic pharmacological action, a drug must always

[A] Reach high blood levels
[B] Absorb from G.l.tract readily
[C] Achieve adequate concentration at the site of action
[D] Excreted unchanged in urine

Q.32) Heparin prevents blood coagulation by

[A] Inhibiting thrombin catalyzed conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
[B] Precipitate blood Calcium, thereby prevent coagulation reaction
[C] Inhibiting enzyme reactions
[D] Converting’ ionized calcium by chelation

Q.33) Which is an antimetabolite?

[A] Fluorouracil
[B] Nitrogen mustard
[C] Cyclophosphamide
[D] Chlorambucil

Q.34) Selective beta-2 bronchodilator used for the treatment of status asthmaticus is

[A] Acetylcholine
[B] Isoetharine
[C] Terbutaline
[D] Dirabuterol

Q.35) Belladonna alkaloid (atropine) is used prior to administration of a general anesthetic agent due to

[A] inhibition of G.l.T. motility
[B] Prevention of miosis
[C] Inhibition of salivation and secretion of respiratory tract
[D] Causing skeletal muscle relaxation

Q.36) Drug of choice in amoebic dysentery is

[A] Penicillin G
[B] Niridazole
[C] Metronidazole
[D] Tetracycline

Q.37) Clinically used Uricosuric agent is

[A] Diazepam
[B] Sulfinpyrazone
[C] Phenylbutazone
[D] Phenytoin

[S37] Uricosuric agent – Probenecid, Sulpinpyrazone

Q.38) The metal used in the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis is

[A] Ag
[B] Au
[C] Cu
[D] Sb

Q.39) The drug very effective in the treatment of acute gout is

[A] Aspirin
[B] Acetaminophen
[C] phenylbutazone
[D] Indomethacin

Q.40) The Antitubercular drug inhibiting RNA synthesis

[A] Streptomycin
[B] Ethambutol
[C] Chloramphenicol
[D] Rifampicin

Q.41) The Antitubercular drug inhibiting Protein synthesis with potential for ototoxic effect is

[A] Ethambutol
[B] Dapsone
[C] Streptomycin
[D] INH

Q.42) Methotrexate is an antagonist of

[a] Cobalamine
[B] Folic acid
[C] Riboflavin
[D] Tocopherol

Q.43) All are the side effects of Chloroquine EXCEPT

[A] Blurring of vision

[B] Haemolytic anaemia

[C] Psychotic episodes

[D] Skin rash

Q.44) Antidote of organophosphorus poisoning is

[A] Nitrous oxide

[B] Atenolol

[C] Atropine

[D] Tubocurarine

Q.45) Which of the following agents is a cholinesterase reactivator?

[A] Aspirin
[B] Pilocarpine
[C] Scopolamine
[D] Pralidoxime

Q.46) Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is –

[A] Diosgenin
[B] Epinephrine
[C] Dopamine
[D] Ouabain

Q.47) The choice of drug to treat Cerebral Malaria is

[A] Mepacrine
[B] Amodiaquine
[C] Quinine
[A] Primaquine

Q.48) All of the following statements concerning Sulfonamides are correct except

[A] Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase

[B] Crystaluria may occur

[C] They are antimetabolites of PABA

[D] They are bacteriostatic

Q.49) Optic neuritis is a chief adverse effect of

[A] Sulpha drugs
[B] Pyrazinamide
[C] Rifampicin
[D] Ethambutol

Q.50) Which of the following is a Macrolide antibiotic?

[A] Erythromycin
[B] Spiramycin
[C] lincomycin
[D] Vancomycin

Q.51) steroidal antibiotic is

[A]Fucidin

[B] Bacitracin

[C]  Aminophylline

[D]  Clindamycin

[S51] Bacitracin and the polymyxins are polypeptide antibiotics & Bacitracin a  affects cell wall synthesis. The lincosamide family of antibiotics includes lincomycin and clindamycin, both of which inhibit protein synthesis. Aminophylline (soluble ethylenediamine salt salt of theophylline) is a bronchodilator.

Q.52) The preferred treatment of status epilepticus is intra venous administration of

[A] Ethosuximide

[B] Sodium valproate

[C] Diazepam

[D] Chloramphenicol

[S52] The pharmacological treatment of choice at present consists of intravenous infusion of either diazepam or lorazepam.

Q.53) Bromocriptine is used to treat amenorrhea because

[A]  stimulates the ovary

[B] It stimulates the GnRH release

[C] It suppresses the prolactin release

[D] It stimulates FSH release

[S53]  In women, prolactin acts with other hormones on the mammary gland during pregnancy to develop lactation and after birth to maintain it. But  Hyperprolactinemia causes impotence in men and amenorrhea and infertility in women. Dopaminergic agonists inhibit prolactin release and antagonists, such as the antipsychotic drugs, increase release of Prolactin.

Q.54) The primary mechanism of action of Local Anaesthetic is the blockade of

[A] Potassium channel

[B] Calcium channel

[C] Sodium channel

[D] All of the above

[S54] The application of a local anesthetic to a nerve that is actively conducting impulses will inhibit the inward migration of Na. The local anesthetics interfere with the generation of the action potential, namely, transient voltage-dependent rise in the permeability of the membrane to Na+.

Q.55) Long term use of Glucocorticoids induce

[A] Hypotension

[B] Hepatotoxicity

[C]  Osteoporosis

[D]  Bradycardia

[S55] The most damaging and therapeutically limiting adverse effect of long-term glucocorticoid therapy is impairment of bone formation. By enhancing bone resorption and decreasing bone formation, glucocorticoids decrease bone mass and increase the risk of fractures.

Adrenal Gland: Medulla part – Adrenaline (to meet short term stress) and cortex part- divided into three ZONES-

1. concentric zones: the zona glomerulosa (secretes Aldosterone-Mineralocorticoid),
2. zona fasciculate (secretes Glucocorticoids – Hydrocortisone withstand long term stress),
3. and zona reticularis (Sex steroids).

Q.56) Clomiphene is used to treat infertility because it stimulates

[A] LH secretion

[B] Follicular development

[C] Ovulation

[D] Uterus activity

Q.57) Isoxsuprine is used to treat

[A] Asthma

[B]Severe hypotension

[C] Nasal congestion

[D] Premature labour

Q.58) The phenomena of invasion and destruction of tissue is known as

[A] Natural immunity

[B] Acquired immunity

[C]  Pathogenicity

[D]  Parasitism

Q.59) Organisms, that can grow on organic matter from dead plants or animals are called as

[A] Saprophytes

[B] Parasites

[C] Psychotrophs

[D] Mesophils

Q.60) Glycerol may be used as a preservative in a percentage of

[A] 15

[B] 50

[C] 1

[D] 0.1

Q.61) The micro-organism that can enter the body only through an injury is

[A] Salmonella typhi

[B] Clostridium tetani

[C] Clostridium botulinum

[D] Streptococcus pyogenes

Q.62) Tears contain an antibacterial enzyme known as

[A] Zymase

[B]  Diastase

[C] Lysozyme

[D]  Lipase

[S62]  (Lysozyme, an enzyme found in the secretions (tears) of the lacrimal glands of animals and in nasal mucus, gastric secretions, and egg white)

Q.63) Protein deficiency disease is known as

[A] Cushing’s disease

[B] Fabry’s disease

[C] Parkinson’s disease

[D]  Kwashiorkor and marasmus

Q.64) Glycogen is present in all body tissue except

[A] Liver

[B]  Brain

[C] Kidney

[D] Stomach

Q.65) The conversion of carotenoids to vitamin A takes place in

[A] Intestine

[B] Liver

[C]Kidney

[D] Skin

Q.66) The precursor of bile salts, sex hormones and vitamin D is

[A] Diosgenin

[B]  Cholesterol

[C]Campesterol

[D]Ergosterol

Q.67) International enzyme commission classifies enzymes into

[A] Three classes

[B] Six classes

[C] Four classes

[D] Ten classes

Q.68) Platelets contain an enzyme which has an important/role in clotting of blood. This enzyme is known as

[A] Cholinesterase

[B]  Transaminase

[C] Decarboxylase

[D] Thrombokinase

Q.69) Cobalt is a’ constituent of

[A] Folic acid

[B] Vitamin B12

[C]  Niacin

[D] Biotin

Q.70) In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is from

[A] DNA to DNA

[B] DNA to Protein

[C] DNA to RNA

[D] RNA to DNA

Q.71) Milk is deficient in which mineral?

[A] Phosphorus

[B] Sodium

[C] Iron

[D]  Potassium

Q.72) Unopened insulin is stored at

[A] -1 to -5 °C

[B] 2 to 8 °C

[C] 15 to 20 °C

[D] 20 to 30 °C

Q.73) Glargine is

[A] Short acting insulin

[B] Intermediate acting insulin

[C] Peakless insulin

[D] Oral insulin

Q.74) Metformin is

[A] Sulfonyl urea

[B] DPPS inhibitor

[C]  Biguanide

[D] Alpha glucosidase inhibitor

Q.75) Enalapril is

[A] Angiotensin receptor blocker

[B] Ca channel blocker

[C] Beta blocker

[D] Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

Q.76) In primary vaccination DPT is given as

[A] Three doses at one month intervals

[B] Three doses at three month intervals

[C] Five doses at one month intervals

[D] Single dose

Q.77) The following are NSAIDs except

[A] Ibuprofen

[B] Diclofenac sodium

[C] Ketotifen

[D]  Piroxicam

Q.78) Dextromethorphan is used in cough syrups as

[A] Expectorant

[B]  Mucolytic

[C] Bronchodilator

[D] Suppressant

Q.79) The following are Proton pump inhibitors except

[A] Omeprazole

[B] Rabiprazole

[C]  Pantoprazole

[D] Albendazole

Q.80) The following are true of National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) except

[A] lt is a statutory body

[B] It can fund studies regarding pricing of drugs

[C] It monitors drug shortages and takes appropriate action to rectify it

[D] It collects and maintains data regarding the import and export of drugs

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