Total Number of Question: 100 (Pharmacist online exam)
Scheme/pattern of online Examination:- Pharmacist (Ayurvedic) 2023 ESIC
| Topic | No of Questions | Max. Marks | Duration |
| Technical/ Professional Pharmacy Knowledge | 50 | 100 | 60 minutes |
| General Awareness | 10 | 10 | 60 minutes Note: – Negative marking- 0.25 marks |
| General Intelligence | 20 | 20 | |
| Arithmetic Ability | 20 | 20 | |
| Total | 100 | 150 |
Solved Pharmacist (Ayurvedic) Paper pdf- Download
Qualifying Marks for Pharmacist post in ESIC
| Category | Qualifying marks |
| UR | 45 % |
| OBC & EWS | 40% |
| SC/ST | 35% |
| PWD | 30% |
1. Health is defined as a state of:
a. Physical, mental and social wellbeing
b. Condition free from disease
c. Social wellbeing
d. Economic wellbeing
2. Decrease in WBC count is termed as:
a. Leucocytosis
b. Leucopenia
c. Leukemia
d. Leucocytopenia
3. Site of formation of red blood cells is:
a. Spleen
b. Brain
c. Bone marrow
d. Bones
4. The type of blood group termed as universal acceptor is:
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type O
d. Type AB
5. Carbon dioxide is supplied and stored in cylinder painted with:
a. Blue color
b. Black color
c. Grey color
d. White color
6. Urea cycle takes place in the :
a. Brain
b. Lung
c. Heart
d. Liver
7. Which one of the following does not belong to B-complex group?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Nicotinic acid
c. Folic acid
d. Pantothenic acid
8. The deficiency of vitamin B1 is termed as:
a. Scurvy
b. Beriberi
c. Pellagra
d. Anaemia
9. Proteins are the polymers of:
a. Nucleotides
b. Fatty acids
c. Amino acids
d. Sugar units
10. The presence of carbohydrate is identified by:
a. Molische’s test
b. Dragandroff’s test
c. Biuret test
d. Wagner’s test
11. The suicidal bags of the cell are:
a. Ribosomes
b. Golgi bodies
c. Mitochondria
d. Lysosomes
12. The reagent added for the limit test for chlorides:
a. NaCl
b. BaSO4
c. AgNO3
d. PbNO3
13. Adrakam is used as a:
a. Carminative
b. Bitter tonic
c. Anti-diarrhoeal
d. Laxative
14. Asoka is used for conditions of:
a. Leucorrhoea
b. Sedative
c. Spasmolytic
d. Galactogogue
15. Svarnapathri contains:
a. Resins
b. Tropane alkaloids
c. Tannins
d. Anthraquinone glycosides
16. The active constituent of Lavangha is found maximum in:
a. Flower
b. Flower bud
c. Stem
d. Leaf
17. The latin name of Asvagandha is:
a. Allium sativum
b. Glycyrrhiza glabra
c. Holarrhena antidyssentrica
d. Withania somnifera
18. The resin content in Indravaruni is located in
a. Flower
b. Root
c. Stem
d. Fruit
19. Haldi contains:
a. Curcuminoids
b. α-pinene
c. Betaine
d. Ajmaline
20. Satavari is a drug producing:
a. Mydriatic effect
b. Carminative effect
c. Cardiotonic effect
d. Laxative effect
21. Ocimum sanctum is the Latin name of:
a. Shankhpushpi
b. Dhanyakam
c. Tulasi
d. Shigdhajiraka
22. The source of vitamin A is:
a. Chaulmoogra oil
b. Sesame oil
c. Turpentine oil
d. Shark liver oil
23. Tartaric acid is the chief ingredient in:
a. Seeshavi
b. Amlika
c. Sarpagandha
d. Vasika
24. The active ingredient of hingupatri is present in the:
a. Rhizome
b. Leaf
c. Flower bud
d. Fruit
25. Violin alkaloid is the chief ingredient of:
a. Psoralea corylifolia
b. Viola adorata
c. Myroxylon balsamum
d. Atropa belladonna
26. The crude drug used for the treatment of leprosy and tuberculosis is:
a. Chenopodium oil
b. Arachis oil
c. Chaulmoogra oil
d. Cod liver oil
27. Bhunimba or kirata tikta belongs to the family of:
a. Solanaceae
b. Rubiaceae
c. Gentianaceae
d. Piperaceae
28. The drug of choice of malaria is:
a. Twak
b. Sinkona
c. Seeshavi
d. Satavari
29. Foxglove is:
a. Tilapushpi
b. Satapushpi
c. Madhurika
d. Parasikaya
30. The latin name of madhurika or misreya is:
a. Terminalia chebula
b. Saussurea lapa
c. Foeniculum vulgare
d. Asparagus racemosus
31. The active constituent of Satavari is:
a. Saponin glycoside
b. Anthracene glycoside
c. Alkaloid
d. Volatile oil
32. Bontrager’s test is done for:
a. Satavari
b. Banglachini
c. Agada kheshtha
d. Haldi
33. Biganda is used as:
a. Bronchodilator
b. Sedative
c. Anthelmintic
d. Expectorant
34. In yastimadhuka, the concentration of saponin glycoside is more in the:
a. Leaf
b. Flower bud
c. Stolon
d. Bark
35. Vasika is used as a:
a. Stomachic
b. Antineoplastic agent
c. Antiseptic
d. Expectorant
36. The crude drug used for chronic bronchitis is:
a. Mrtyupushpa
b. Atasibija
c. Yashtimadhuka
d. Jambira
37. Holy basil is the synonym of:
a. Ela
b. Tulsi
c. Amlika
d. Haldi
38. Limonene is contained as an active ingredient in:
a. Nagaranga
b. Aphiphena
c. Jambira
d. Haritaka
39. List of Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani poisons are given in the Schedule:
a. F(I)
b. E(I)
c. E
d. F(II)
40. Requirements for factory premises and hygiene conditions for the manufacture of Ayurvedic drug are schedule in:
a. Schedule S
b. Schedule M
c. Schedule T
d. Schedule W
41. Application for the grant of license for manufacture of drugs should be made in the form:
a. 24 D
b. 25 D
c. 25 E
d. 24 E
42. In the five chapters of Drugs and Cosmetic Act, provision relating to Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani drugs are given in the chapter:
a. V
b. I
c. IV
d. IVA
43. Which of the following is a poisonous substance that should be avoided in the Ayurvedic preparation?
a. Vishamushti
b. Jatiphalam
c. Shigdhajiraka
d. Satapushpi
44. In which part of the Drugs and Cosmetic Act have the requirements for the labeling & packing, and limit of alcohol in Ayurveda drugs been included?
a. XVII
b. XIX
c. XIV
d. XVI
45. Gauripasana is:
a. Cinnabar
b. Copper sulphate
c. Arsenic
d. Mercury
46. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. A dosage form contains a collection of active and inactive principles of the crude drug
b. Majority of drugs are from plant source
c. Some of the Ayurvedic preparations are used parenterally
d. Some of the external preparations can be used for internal use also
47. Which one of the following is prepared from the decoction of drug?
a. Arista
b. Asava
c. Churna
d. Lepa
48. The syrups are called as:
a. Bhasma
b. Panaka
c. Gutika
d. Sattva
49. Which among the following is a mercury preparation?
a. Lauha
b. Asava
c. Sindura
d. Thaila
50. Thaila is a dosage form used as:
a. Syrup
b. Tincture
c. Dry powder
d. Medicinal oil
51. The ophthalmic dosage forms are:
a. Pasaka
b. Anjana
c. Bhasma
d. Arka
52. Kapha dosha is related to:
a. Earth
b. Air
c. Fire
d. Sun
53. The number of elemental substances required for health in Ayurveda is:
a. 5
b. 3
c. 7
d. 8
54. The basic tissue in Ayurveda is:
a. Kapha
b. Mala
c. Bodhaka
d. Rasa
55. The number of gunas or qualities inherent in substances is:
a. 20
b. 17
c. 3
d. 7
56. In Ayurveda, the illness is not diagnosed by:
a. Nadi
b. Moothra
c. Mala
d. Raktha
57. The technique done prior to Panchakarma is:
a. Paschatkarma
b. Peyadikarma
c. Poorvakarma
d. Rakthamoksha
58. Rasa shastra is the :
a. Practice of adding metals, minerals and gems
b. Practice of removing toxic substances and minerals
c. Practice of filtering toxic principles
d. Practice of making formulations
59. Which of the following cannot be called as the basic principle text of Ayurveda?
a. Kasyapa Samhita
b. Charaka Samhita
c. Sushruta Samhita
d. Bhela Samhita
60. Ashtanga nighantu was written by:
a. Madhava
b. Vagbhata
c. Chakrapanidatta
d. Agnivesa
61. Which of the following is not a constituent in triphala churna?
a. Haldi
b. Haitaki
c. Bibhitaki
d. aHahhhhhhhhAmala
62. The term ‘AMA’ relates to:
a. Tissues
b. Toxins
c. Fats
d. Bones
63. The final stage of digestive process or aphara pachana is termed as:
a. Tiktha avastha paka
b. Katu avastha paka
c. Kashaya avastha paka
d. Madhura avastha paka
64. The condition when all the three doshas are in balance is termed as:
a. Mandagni
b. Tikshagni
c. Samagni
d. Vishanagni
65. The tissue that fills the bone and is related to bone marrow is:
a. Majja dhatu
b. Meda dhatu
c. Asthi dhatu
d. Mamsa dhatu
66. The process which removes the impurities and helps in increasing the therapeutic value is:
a. Murcchana
b. Bhavana
c. Sodhana
d. Sadhaka
67. The decoction obtained by boiling coarse powder of drug in four, eight or sixteen times of water is:
a. Kvatha
b. Bhavana
c. Nimanjana
d. Sudhodaka
68. Svarasa is:
a. Liquid part of fresh macerated plant
b. Fine paste of macerated plant
c. Finely sieved powder of dried drug
d. Extract of plant
69. The instrument used for trituration is:
a. Khalva yantra
b. Damaru yantra
c. Dola yantra
d. Tiryak patina yantra
70. Gandhaka is:
a. Iron
b. Sulphur
c. Silica
d. Silver
71. The B-lymphocytes are involved in:
a. Humoral immunity
b. Cell mediated immunity
c. Active immunity
d. Passive immunity
72. The outermost tissue of the heart is:
a. Endocardium
b. Pericardium
c. Myocardium
d. Epicardium
73. Which among of the following is not a leucocyte?
a. Granulocyte
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Thrombocytes
74. Which of the following is not a salivary gland?
a. Submandibular
b. Sublingual
c. Parietal
d. Parotid
75. The pH of gastric juice is:
a. 2 – 4
b. 3 – 6
c. 7 – 8
d. 10 – 12
76. The organ in the body involved in the metabolism of drugs is:
a. Kidney
b. Large intestine
c. Liver
d. Small intestine
77. Whooping cough is caused by:
a. Corynebacterium diphtheria
b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. Staphylococcus aureus
78. The visualization of urinary tract for diagnostic purpose is termed as:
a. Cystoscopy
b. Sigmadoscopy
c. Colonscopy
d. Uroscopy
79. Lack of appetite is termed as:
a. Anoxia
b. Anorexia
c. Anoxemia
d. Asphyxia
80. Difficulty in swallowing is termed as:
a. Dysuria
b. Dysphagia
c. Dyspnoea
d. Diplopia
81. Which among the following is not a part of small intestine?
a. Ileum
b. Caecum
c. Jejunum
d. Duodenum
82. The type of tablets that release carbon dioxide when added to water are:
a. Hypodermic tablets
b. Effervescent tablets
c. Chewable tablets
d. Solution tablets
83. Which among the following methods is not used during tablet preparation?
a. Granulation
b. Sieving
c. Compressing
d. Hand filling
84. The additive used to increase the flow properties of granules is:
a. Lubricant
b. Diluent
c. Glident
d. Binder
85. The deformity of uneven distribution of colour in tablets is termed as:
a. Picking
b. Mottling
c. Chipping
d. Sticking
86. The permissive thickness variation of a tablet is up to the limit of:
a. 5%
b. 3%
c. 10%
d. 4%
87. The ability of the tablet to withstand the wear and tear during transportation is analyzed by:
a. Disintegrator
b. Friabilator
c. Hardness tester
d. Dissolution apparatus
88. The mode of transmission of tetanus infection is:
a. Injury
b. Air
c. Water
d. Sexual act
89. An infection characterized by hydrophobia:
a. Tetanus
b. Trachoma
c. Rabies
d. Leprosy
90. Which of the following diseases is caused by acid fast bacilli (AFB)?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Diphtheria
c. Cholera
d. Typhoid
Pharmacist Previous Year Question Paper Download
91. Varicella zoster virus is responsible for producing:
a. Influenza
b. Measles
c. Chicken pox
d. Hepatitis
92. Cerebral malaria is caused by:
a. P. ovale
b. P. falciparum
c. P. malariae
d. P. vivax
93. DPT vaccine is used to control:
a. Tuberculosis
b. Tetanus
c. Influenza
d. Small pox
94. The vector for filarial is:
a. Female anopheles mosquito
b. Culex mosquito
c. Mansonia mosquito
d. Rodents
95. The common name for influenza is:
a. Flu
b. Leprosy
c. Whooping cough
d. Tetanus
96. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Syphilis
c. AIDS
d. Trachoma
97. Tuberculosis can be controlled by vaccinating with:
a. DPT
b. BCG
c. TAB
d. ARV
98. Substances that absorb moisture are:
a. Eutectic
b. Hygroscopic
c. Efflorescent
d. Effervescent
99. Glycogen is a polysaccharide stored in:
a. Blood
b. Stomach wall
c. Muscle
d. Adipose tissue
100. Normal level of total cholesterol in serum is:
a. 50-100 mg/dl
b. 100-150 mg/dl
c. 250-350 mg/dl
d. 150-250 mg/dl
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