1) Which of the following is not a benzodiazepine derivative but act in a similar manner?
a) Triazolam
b) Zolpidem
c) Nitrazepam
d) Alprazolam
2) Which of following is recently introduced drug for treatment of Tuberculosis?
a) Bedaquilline
b) Linezolid
c) Terizidone
d) Capreomycin
3) ____ is a morphine analogue with more than 1000 times potential than morphine in similar type of action?
a) Buprenorphine
b) Tramadol
c) Pethidine
d) Etorphine
4) __________ is short acting neuromuscular blocking drug with duration of action between 15-20 minutes/
a) Pancuronium
b) Atracurium
c) Doxacurium
d) Rapacuronium
5) Which of the following is not Alpha glucosidase inhibitors?
a) Acarbose
b) Miglitol
c) Voglibose
d) Rapaglinide
6) Which of the following monoclonal antibody is used in treatment of asthma?
a) Omalizumab
b) Rituximab
c) Infliximab
d) Adalimumab
7) Lignified cork is found in _____
a) Podophyllum
b) Rauwolfia
c) Ephedra
d) Belladonna
8) Which of following is narrow spectrum steroid antibiotic active against Gram-positive bacteria?
a) Nitrofurantoin
b) Fusidic acid
c) Quinupristin
d) Clindamycin
9) ____ is an alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonist that relieves spasticity associated with multiple sclerosis
a) Clonidine
b) Tizanidine
c) Dantrolene
d) Dronabinol
10) ____ is an orally active renin inhibitor used for essential hypertension
a) Aliskiren
b) Captopril
c) Perindopril
d) Losartan
11) Which of the following anticholinesterase used for diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis?
a) Physostigmine
b) Neostignine
c) Pryidostigmine
d) Endrophonium
12) Which of the following is short acting muscarinic receptor antagonist used in treatment of asthma?
a) Tiotropium
b) Ipratropium
c) Benztropine
d) Aclidinium
13) Which of the following is Chemokine receptor-5 (CCR-5) antagonist used in treatment of HIV infection?
a) Enfuvirtide
b) atazanavir
c) Raltegravir
d) Maraviroc
14) Which of following is not anthelmintics drug?
a) Metronidazole
b) Mebendazole
c) Tiabendazole
d) Albendazole
15) Which one of following antiepileptic drug is also used in bipolar disorder and as migraine prophylaxis?
a) Vegabatrin
b) Phenytoin
c) Valproate
d) Rufinamide
16) _____ is an opiate that does not enter brain and therefore lacks analgesic activity but it is used to control diarrhoea?
a) Pentazocine
b) Codeine
c) Methadone
d) Loperamide
17) _____ is a drug of choice for treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
a) Halothane
b) Suxamethonium
c) Dantroline
d) Decamethonium
18) Which of the following is sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor?
a) Dapagliflozin
b) Sitagliptin
c) Saroglitazar
d) Liraglutide
19) Which of the following is used as oral anticoagulant?
a) Desrudin
b) Debigatran
c) Enoxaperin
d) Argatroban
20) The core nucleus present in famciclovie is
a) Pyrimidine
b) Pyridopyrimidine
c) Purine
d) Pyridine
21) Zoledronic acid used for the treatment of osteoporosis belonging to which chemical class?
a) Isoquinoline
b) Oxazolidindione
c) Benzopyran
d) Bisphophonates
22) ____ is used in assay of boric acid to form more strong monobasic acid
a) Ether
b) Glycerol
c) Chloroform
d) Methanol
23) Vincristine shows___ neurotoxicity compared to vinblastine
a) More
b) No
c) Less
d) Similar
24) The structure of Hyoscyamine can be differentiated by the presence of_____ in hyoscine
a) Epoxy group
b) Carbonyl group
c) Ester group
d) Lactone ring
25) Gum Sterculia has an odour of __________
a) Benzoic acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Formic acid
d) Synergic acid
26) _____ is used as an ingredient in preparation of Asavas & Aristhas?
a) Malkangri
b) Dhataki pushpa
c) Arduso
d) Dhamaso
27) ____ is known as Indian ginseng
a) Picrocchiza
b) Chirata
c) Gentian
d) Withania
28) Hepatotoxicity of acetaminophen is due to
a) N-acetly-p-benzoquinonimine
b) p-benzoquinonoimine
c) p-benzoquinone
d) N-acetylamine
29) The agylcone portion of cardiac glycoside has unique set of ring fusion. Identify correct dream fusion.
a) Ring A B, CD cis & BC trans
b) Ring AB, CD trans & BC cis
c) Ring AB, BC cic & CD trans
d) Ring AB, CD trans & BC trans
30) Matchstick’s test is positive with
a) Amla
b) Galls
c) catechu
d) Myrobalan
31) Digitalis leave are dried immediately after collection at 60 degree to minimise_____
a) Reduction
b) Hydrolyzes
c) Methylation
d) Oxidation
32) ____ is considered as product
a) Cardiac glycoside
b) Anthraquinone glycosides
c) Coumarins
d) Saponin
33) Thalloquin test is positive in case of___
a) Cinnamon bark
b) Cincona Bark
c) Cascara bark
d) Kurchi bark
34) Volatile oil of cinnamomum cassia is present in ___
a) Oil cell
b) Lysigenous oil gland
c) Epidermis
d) Glandular trichome
35) Levocetrizine show less CNS side effect due to presence of
a) Nonpolar functional group
b) Amphoteric group
c) Aliphatic chain
d) Aromatic ring
36) Iodine value of fixed oil is determined by-
a) Iodine monochloride method
b) Ammonuim cerium sulphate method
c) Potassium iodate method
d) Argentimetric method
37) Artificial invert sugar aulteration in honey gives___positive
a) Sakaguchi test
b) Fiehe’s test
c) Barfoed’s test
d) Alcohol solubility test
38) Devi’s dung is name of ___used as a carminative and antispasmodic
a) Jalap
b) Witch hazel
c) Asafoetida
d) Benzoin
39) Tropane alkaloid are biosynthesized from ___of the following.
a) Phynylalanine
b) Tryptophan
c) Tyrosine
d) Ornithine
40) ____Can be used as a synergist for insect repellent activity of pyrethrum
a) Borneol
b) Menthol
c) Thymol
d) Sesamol
41) ___is bitter principle found in licorice
a) Glycyramarin
b) Glyeyrrhizin
c) Glicoricone
d) Liquiritin
42) Choose the correct statement
a) Metastable is more soluble than its in stable counterpart
b) Suspension system should always be prepared with metastable form
c) Bioavailability of crystalline and metastable form is same
d) Free energy of metastable form is lower than its stable counterpart
43) The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are known as
a) Fungi
b) Bacteriophage
c) Commensels
d) Metaphase
44) Dosage form not suitable for intramascular administration/?
a) Suspension
b) Solutiom
c) Emulsion
d) Liniment
45) Mantoux test is used for detection of
a) Tuberculosis
b) Cholera
c) Diphtheria
d) Typhoid
46) ________participates in the replication of mitochondrial DNA
a) DNA polymerase a
b) DNA polymerase β
c) DNA polymerase δ
d) DNA polymerase δ
47) ACE inhibitor which excreted unchanged in urine is
a) Captopril
b) Fosinopril
c) Ramipril
d) Lisinopril
48) Leflunomide belongs to which category of drug ?
a) Antimalarial
b) Anticancer
c) DMARD
d) NSAIDs
49) Drug used in combination for the prophylaxis and treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria is
a) Sulfadoxine + pyrimathamine
b) Sulfapyidine + pyrimethamine
c) Sulfamethoxazole + pyrimethamine
d) Sulfanilamide + pyrimethamine
50) ____is sulphur containing amino acid
a) Methionine
b) Glycine
c) Valine
d) Tryptophane
51) Which of the following is a Gram –Negative bacteria?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Enterococci
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Escherichia coli
52) ____is cationic surfactant
a) SLS
b) Cetrimide
c) Tween 80
d) Span 80
53) The major immunoglobulin present in the human serum is
a) IgG
b) IgE
c) IgA
d) IgF
54) The novel metabolic modulator used for the treatment of chronic angina is
a) Nicorandil
b) toacinide
c) Desacetyldiltiazem
d) Ronalazine
55) Two moles of aldehyde with no Alpha hydrogen react in presence of sodium hydroxide and produce___
a) Acid and alcohol
b) 2 mole of alcohols
c) 2 moles of acid
d) Acid and aldehyde
56) Valdecoxib was withdrawn from the market due to its___
a) Hepatotoxicity
b) Cardiotoxicity
c) Neurotoxicity
d) Nephrotoxicity
57) Azo reduction of sulfasalazine in large intestine produces
a) Sulphamethoxazole + 5-aminosalicylic acid
b) Sulphapyridine + 2-aminosalicylic acid
c) Sulphamethoxazole + salicylic acid
d) Sulphapyridine + 5-aminosylicylic acid
58) Which of the following antiplatelet belongs to phosphodiesterase inhibitor class?
a) Triflusal
b) Cilostazol
c) Indobufen
d) Ticlopidine
59) A mutation that produces termination codon is
a) Missense mutation
b) Nonsense mutation
c) Neutral mutation
d) Reverse mutation
60) _____ mordant is used in Gram staining
a) Crystal Violet
b) Saffranin
c) Iodine
d) Alcohol
61) Which of the following is an ionizing radiation
a) UV rays
b) Gamma rays
c) Infrared
d) Radio waves
62) Glucose 6 phosphate is absent in which of the following organs?
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Brain
d) spleen
63) Stereoisomers which are not Mirror image of each other are called
a) Enantiomers
b) Mesoisomers
c) Diasteriomers
d) Atropisomers
64) Drug combination for MAC therapy is
a) Azithromycin + streptomycin
b) Azithromycin + ethambutol
c) Azithromycin+ isoniazid
d) Azithromycin + pyrazinamide
65) Zafirlukast is the derivative of which hetero nucleus
a) Indole
b) Benzimidazole
c) Isoquinoline
d) BenzopyranA
66) Aspirin induced asthma is due to
a) Inhibition of CFTR of protein
b) Activation of COX
c) Inhibition of COX but not LOX
d) Activation of phospholipase
67) Which drug is motlin receptor agonist?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Cifixime
c) Tetracycline
d) Erythromycin
68) Methyl paraben is effective in the pH range___
a) 1-4
b) 4-8
c) 9-10
d) 11-14
69) Sugar coated tablets should be disintegrated within ___ minutes
a) 15
b) 30
c) 60
d) 90
70) First pass hepatic metabolism is observed for the drug administered through____ route
a) Sublingual
b) IV injection
c) Vaginal
d)Â Oral
71) Chipping referes to
a) Separation of Tablet into two or more layers
b) Removal of upper or lower layer of tablet
c) Removal of material from the edge
d) Material sticks on punch surface
72) BCS class III drug possess
a) High solubility high permeability
b) High solubility low permeability
c) Law of solubility high permeability
d) Low ability low permeability
73) Pore size of membrane for filtration sterilization is
a) 0.48 micron
b) 0.22 micron
c) 0.67 micron
d) 0.75 microne
74) Noyes Whitney equation is used to determine
a) Surface area
b) Solubility
c) Dissolution rate
d) True density
75) In dispersion test of dispersible tablet___ size of sieve is used
a) 20#
b) 16#
c) 10#
d) 22#
76) Which of following benzodiazepines is used as both anxiolytic and antidepressant
a) Alprazolam
b) Diazepam
c) Midazolam
d) Chlordiazepoxide
77) Inner 100 area, maximum number of permitted particle of 0.5 micron or more per cubic of air during operation is___
a) 3500
b) 1000
c) 4500
d) 2500
78) Suitable Bloom strength for gelatin capsule shell is
a) 150-280
b) 100-140
c) 290-350
d) 350-400
79) Type B gelatin has isoelectric point
a) 2.7
b) 9.7
c) 4.7
d) 6.7
80) Unit of first order reaction rate constant
a) hour-1
b) mg/hour
c) mg/second
d) mol/second
81) Properties of endotoxin does not include
a) heat stable
b) Released after lysis of cell wall
c) Released from Gram Positive Bacteria
d) It is Lipo polysaccharide
82) Maillard reaction is
a) Complexation of phenolic group with metal
b) Dimerization between sulfhydryl group and oxygen
c) Reaction of amine group with lactose leading to Browning and discoloration
d) Interaction between alcohol and oxygen
83) Emulsifying agent that produces water in oil type emulsion is___
a) polyoxyethylene sorbitan monostearate
b) Sorbitan monostearate
c) Tragacanth
d) Polysorbate 80
84) All the particles of course powder (IP) must pass through___
a) 10
b) 20
c) 16
d) 22
85) Blooming a tablet coating defect characterized by
a) coating become dull
b) Detachment of coating from the surface of a tablet
c) pits occure on the surface of a tablet
d) Volcanic like craters appear exposing the tablet surface
86) Titanium dioxide used as
a) Preservative
b) Antioxidant
c) Chelating agent
d) Opacifying agent
87) Powder with angle of repose of 25 can be categorised as
a) Excellent
b) Fair
c) Passable
d) poor
88) Stock law is applied for
a) Determination of sedimentation velocity
b) Determination of surface area
c) Determination of Zeta potential
d) Determination of surface tension
89) Type I glass is made up of
a) Boro silicate
b) Soda lime
c) Treated soda lime
d) Calcium sulphate
90) Friability test apparatus is run at___ RPM
a) 25
b) 10
c) 50
d) 100
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